Chapter 1: Defining Marketing for the 21st Century
GENERAL CONCEPT QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. The most formal definition of marketing is ________.
a. meeting needs profitably
b. identifying and meeting human and social needs
c. the four Ps (product, price, place, promotion)
d. an organizational function and a set of processes for creating, communicating, and delivering value to customers and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefit the organization and its stakeholders
e. improving the quality of life for consumers
Answer: d Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium
2. ________ takes place when at least one party to a potential exchange thinks about the means of achieving desired responses from other parties.
a. Marketing management
b. Forecasting
c. Segmentation
d. Targeting
e. Distribution
Answer: a Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication
3. Marketing management is ________.
a. managing the marketing process
b. monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and services
c. selecting target markets
d. developing marketing strategies to move the company forward
e. the art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value
Answer: e Page: 5 Difficulty: Easy
4. A social definition of marketing says ________.
a. effective marketing requires companies to remove intermediary parties to achieve a closer connection with direct consumers
b. a company should focus exclusively on achieving high production efficiency, low costs, and mass distribution to facilitate the broadest possible access to the company’s products
c. marketing is a societal process by which individuals and groups obtain what they need and want through creating, offering, and freely exchanging products and services of value with others
d. marketing is the process of extracting maximal value from consumers to facilitate corporate growth
e. marketing is the process of aggressive selling and promotion to encourage the purchase of products that might otherwise be unsought by the consumer
Answer: c Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium
5. ________ goods constitute the bulk of most countries’ production and marketing efforts.
a. Durable
b. Impulse
c. Physical
d. Service
e. Event
Answer: c Page: 6 Difficulty: Medium
6. As economies advance, a growing proportion of their activities focuses on the production of ________.
a. products
b. events
c. experiences
d. places
e. services
Answer: e Page: 6 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills
7. ________ actively work to build a strong, favorable, and unique image in the minds of their target publics.
a. Information
b. Shopping goods
c. Durable goods
d. Organizations
e. Properties
Answer: d Page: 7 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
8. Charles Revson of Revlon observed: “In the factory, we make cosmetics; in the store, ________.”
a. we make profits
b. we challenge competitors
c. we implement ads
d. we sell hope
e. we sell quality
Answer: d Page: 7 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9. A ________ is someone seeking a response (attention, a purchase, a vote, a donation) from another party, called the ________.
a. salesperson; customer
b. fund-raiser; contributor
c. politician; voter
d. marketer; prospect
e. celebrity; audience
Answer: d Page: 7 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
10. In ________, consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product.
a. negative demand
b. latent demand
c. declining demand
d. irregular demand
e. nonexistent demand
Answer: b Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium
11. In ________, more customers would like to buy the product than can be satisfied.
a. latent demand
b. irregular demand
c. overfull demand
d. excessive
e. negative demand
Answer: c Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium
12. In ________, consumers dislike the product and may even pay a price to avoid it.
a. nonexistent demand
b. overfull demand
c. irregular demand
d. negative demand
e. declining demand
Answer: d Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium
13. Marketers often use the term ________ to cover various groupings of customers.
a. people
b. buying power
c. demographic segment
d. social class position
e. market
Answer: e Page: 9 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
14. Companies selling mass consumer goods and services such as soft drinks, cosmetics, air travel, and athletic shoes and equipment spend a great deal of time trying to establish a superior brand image in markets called ________.
a. business markets
b. global markets
c. consumer markets
d. nonprofit and governmental markets
e. service markets
Answer: c Page: 9 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
15. Much of a brand’s strength in consumer markets depends on ________.
a. developing a superior product
b. creating superior packaging
c. ensuring the product’s availability
d. backing the product with engaging communications and reliable service
e. all of the above
Answer: e Page: 9 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
16. In business markets, advertising can play a role, but a stronger role may be played by the sales force, ________, and the company’s reputation for reliability and quality.
a. brand image
b. distribution
c. promotion
d. price
e. performance
Answer: d Pages: 9–10 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Communication
17. Global marketers must decide ________.
a. which countries to enter
b. how to enter each country (as an exporter, licenser, joint venture partner, contract manufacturer, or solo manufacturer)
c. how to adapt their product and service features to each country
d. how to price their products in different countries
e. all of the above
Answer: e Page: 10 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18. Mohan Sawhney has proposed the concept of ________ to describe a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely related in the minds of consumers but are spread across a diverse set of industries.
a. metamarket
b. vertical integration
c. horizontal integration
d. betamarket
e. synchronized marketing
Answer: a Page: 10 Difficulty: Hard
19. The ________ process consists of analyzing marketing opportunities, selecting target markets, designing marketing strategies, developing marketing programs, and managing the marketing effort.
a. marketing planning
b. strategic planning
c. market research
d. opportunity analysis
e. share of customer
Answer: a Page: 11 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
20. ________ are basic human requirements; ________ are the ways in which we satisfy those requirements, and they are shaped by our society.
a. Wants; needs
b. Demands; wants
c. Needs; wants
d. Needs; demands
e. Demands; needs
Answer: c Page: 12 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Ethical Reasoning
21. A(n) ________ need is a need that the consumer explicitly verbalizes.
a. stated
b. real
c. unstated
d. delight
e. secret
Answer: a Page: 12 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22. The identification and profiling of distinct groups of buyers who might prefer or require varying product and service mixes is known as ________.
a. segmentation
b. integration
c. disintermediation
d. targeting
e. partner relationship management
Answer: a Page: 13 Difficulty: Medium
23. Companies address needs by putting forth a(n) ________, a set of benefits that they offer to customers to satisfy their needs.
a. brand
b. value proposition
c. offering
d. target market
e. demand
Answer: b Page: 13 Difficulty: Medium
24. A(n) ________ need is one that motivates the consumer but that the consumer is reluctant or unwilling to explicitly verbalize.
a. real
b. unstated
c. delight
d. secret
e. stated
Answer: d Page: 13 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
25. During market segmentation analysis, the marketer identifies which segments present the greatest opportunity. These segments are called ________.
a. target markets
b. primary markets
c. tertiary markets
d. demographic markets
e. focused markets
Answer: a Page: 13 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
26. For each target market, the firm develops a ________. The offering is then positioned in the minds of the target buyers as delivering some central benefit(s).
a. value offering
b. niche offering
c. market offering
d. segment offering
e. social offering
Answer: c Page: 13 Difficulty: Medium
27. ________ reflects a customer’s judgment of a product’s performance in relation to his or her expectations.
a. Loyalty
b. Satisfaction
c. Value
d. Expectations
e. Comparison shopping
Answer: b Page: 14 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28. If a marketer decides to use warehouses, transportation companies, banks, and insurance companies to facilitate transactions with potential buyers, the marketer is using what is called a ________.
a. service channel
b. distribution channel
c. brand channel
d. relationship channel
e. intermediary channel
Answer: a Page: 14 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
29. The ________ is a long channel stretching from raw materials to components to final products that are carried to final buyers.
a. communication channel
b. distribution channel
c. supply chain
d. service channel
e. marketing channel
Answer: c Page: 14 Difficulty: Medium
30. Value reflects ________.
a. the price consumers are charged for a product
b. the cost of manufacturing a product
c. the degree to which consumer demand for the product is positive
d. the sum of the perceived tangible and intangible benefits and costs to customers
e. all of the above
Answer: d Page: 14 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Ethical Reasoning
31. ________ includes all the actual and potential rival offerings and substitutes that a buyer might consider.
a. Competition
b. The product offering
c. A value proposition
d. The supply chain
e. The marketing environment
Answer: a Page: 14 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32. The ________ includes the actors involved in producing, distributing, and promoting the offering. The main actors are the company, suppliers, distributors, dealers, and the target customers.
a. operations environment
b. management environment
c. strategic environment
d. task environment
e. tactical environment
Answer: d Page: 15 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
33. Many countries have ________ industries to create greater competition and growth opportunities.
a. open-market
b. deregulated
c. regulated
d. scientifically segmented
e. created mass market
Answer: b Page: 15 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Multicultural/Diversity
34. Rising promotion costs and shrinking profit margins are the result of ________.
a. changing technology
b. globalization
c. deregulation
d. privatization
e. heightened competition
Answer: e Page: 15 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35. Industry boundaries are blurring rapidly as companies identify new opportunities at the intersection of two or more industries—this is called ________.
a. globalization
b. customization
c. industry convergence
d. heightened competition
e. acquisition
Answer: c Page: 15 Difficulty: Medium
36. In response to giant retailers and category killers, entrepreneurial retailers are building entertainment into stores with coffee bars, lectures, demonstrations, and performances. They are marketing a(n) ________ rather than a product assortment.
a. experience
b. customer value
c. customer delight
d. total service solution
e. intangible benefit(s)
Answer: a Page: 15 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37. In response to threats from such companies as AOL, Amazon.com, Yahoo!, eBay, E*TRADE, and dozens of others, established manufacturers and retailers became “brick-and-click” oriented by adding online services to their existing offerings. This process became known as ________.
a. reintermediation
b. disintermediation
c. e-commerce
d. e-collaboration
e. new-market synchronization
Answer: a Page: 16 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Use of IT
38. Many brick-and-click competitors became stronger contenders in the marketplace than the pure-click firms because they had a larger pool of resources to work with and ________.
a. better prices
b. greater value
c. well-established brand names
d. one-on-one communications
e. direct-selling capability
Answer: c Page: 16 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Use of IT
39. Managers of ________-oriented businesses concentrate on achieving high production efficiency, low costs, and mass distribution.
a. selling
b. product
c. production
d. marketing
e. consumer
Answer: c Page: 18 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40. The feasibility of companies dealing with customers one at a time has risen as a result of advances in ________, computers, the Internet, and database marketing software.
a. improved communication flow
b. information technology
c. just-in-time manufacturing
d. factory customization
e. customer-centered strategies
Answer: d Page: 18 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Use of IT
41. The ________ concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features.
a. product
b. marketing
c. production
d. selling
e. holistic marketing
Answer: a Page: 18 Difficulty: Easy
42. The ________ is practiced most aggressively with unsought goods, goods that buyers normally do not think of buying, such as insurance, encyclopedias, and cemetery plots.
a. marketing concept
b. selling concept
c. production concept
d. product concept
e. holistic marketing concept
Answer: b Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
43. The ________ concept holds that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough of the organization’s products.
a. production
b. selling
c. marketing
d. product
e. holistic marketing
Answer: b Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium
44. Several scholars have found that companies who embrace the marketing concept achieve superior performance. This was first demonstrated for companies practicing a ________—understanding and meeting customers’ expressed needs.
a. reactive market orientation
b. proactive marketing orientation
c. total market orientation
d. impulsive market orientation
e. holistic market orientation
Answer: a Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium
45. According to Theodore Levitt, who drew contrasts between the selling and marketing concepts, ________ is preoccupied with the need to convert products into cash.
a. marketing
b. selling
c. direct marketing
d. holistic marketing
e. service marketing
Answer: b Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium
46. Companies that practice both a reactive and proactive marketing orientation are implementing a ________ and are likely to be the most successful.
a. total market orientation
b. external focus
c. customer focus
d. competitive, customer focus
e. confrontation process
Answer: a Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
47. Companies that adopt and employ the marketing concept switch from being solely product centered to being more ________ centered.
a. competency
b. strategy
c. marketing
d. customer
e. sales
Answer: d Page: 19 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
48. ________ can be seen as the development, design, and implementation of marketing programs, processes, and activities that recognizes the breadth and interdependencies of their effects.
a. Niche marketing
b. Holistic marketing
c. Relationship marketing
d. Supply chain marketing
e. Demand-centered marketing
Answer: b Pages: 19–20 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
49. ________ marketing aims to build mutually satisfying long-term relations with key parties such as customers, suppliers, distributors, and other marketing partners.
a. Holistic
b. Demand-based
c. Direct
d. Relationship
e. Synthetic
Answer: d Page: 20 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Communication
50. The strength of the ________ depends on the mutually profitable business relationships built by the company and its supporting stakeholders.
a. sales network
b. holistic union
c. marketing network
d. supply chain network
e. integrated network
Answer: c Page: 22 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Communication
51. One traditional depiction of marketing activities is in terms of the marketing mix or four Ps. The four Ps are characterized as being ________.
a. product, positioning, place, and price
b. product, production, price, and place
c. promotion, place, positioning, and price
d. place, promotion, production, and positioning
e. product, price, promotion, and place
Answer: e Page: 22 Difficulty: Medium
52. From a buyer’s point of view, each marketing tool is designed to deliver a customer benefit. The SIVA customer-centric breakdown of marketing activities includes ________.
a. sale, interaction, voice, and availability
b. solution, information, value, and access
c. satisfaction, intention, value, and account
d. situation, importance, variability, and awareness
e. none of the above
Answer: b Page: 23 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Multicultural/Diversity
53. A firm can ________ only in the long run.
a. reduce its sales-force size
b. develop new products
c. change its price
d. modify advertising expenditures
e. All of the above may be done in the short or long run.
Answer: b Page: 23 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54. Holistic marketing incorporates ________, ensuring that everyone in the organization embraces appropriate marketing principles, especially senior management.
a. profit objectives
b. share of customer
c. internal marketing
d. the marketing mix
e. strategic planning
Answer: c Page: 24 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
55. Companies are recognizing that much of their market value comes from ________, particularly their brands, customer base, employees, distributor and supplier relations, and intellectual capital.
a. variable assets
b. the value proposition
c. intangible assets
d. tangible assets
e. customer preferences
Answer: c Page: 26 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
56. Holistic marketing incorporates ________, an understanding of broader concerns in the ethical, environmental, legal, and social context of marketing activities.
a. safe product design
b. cultural marketing
c. social responsibility marketing
d. cross-functional teams
e. direct-sales policies
Answer: c Page: 26 Difficulty: Medium
57. The ________ holds that the organization’s task is to determine the needs, wants, and interests of target markets and to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors in a way that preserves or enhances the consumer’s and the society’s well-being.
a. customer-centered business
b. focused business model
c. societal marketing concept
d. ethically responsible marketing manager
e. production-centered business
Answer: c Page: 27 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
58. At the heart of any marketing program is the ________—the firm’s tangible offering to the market.
a. service offer
b. product
c. sales support team
d. packaging
e. auxiliary offer
Answer: b Page: 29 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skill
59. ________ activities include those the company undertakes to make the product accessible and available to target customers.
a. Consumer behavior
b. Market segmentation
c. Marketing research
d. Channel
e. New-product development
Answer: d Pages: 29-30 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication
60. Marketing feedback and ________ processes are necessary to understand the efficiency and effectiveness of marketing activities and how both could be improved.
a. control
b. analysis
c. measurement
d. retrospective
e. consumer behavior
Answer: a Page: 30 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
True/False
61. A short definition of marketing is “meeting needs profitably.”
Answer: True Page: 5 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills
62. Value marketing is the “art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value.”
Answer: False Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium
63. Services constitute the bulk of most countries’ production and marketing effort.
Answer: False Page: 6 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
64. The U.S. economy today consists of a 70–30 services-to-goods mix.
Answer: True Page: 6 Difficulty: Medium
65. “Friends Don’t Let Friends Drive Drunk,” is an example of marketing an experience to an interested audience.
Answer: False Page: 7 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
66. Unwholesome demand occurs when consumers’ purchases vary on a seasonal, monthly, weekly, daily, or even hourly basis.
Answer: False Page: 8 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
67. When consumers share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product, they are engaged in latent demand.
Answer: True Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium
68. Companies selling goods and services in the global marketplace have the advantage of being able to sell the goods and services in almost the same way as they do in their domestic market.
Answer: False Page: 10 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Multicultural/Diversity
69. Companies selling their goods to nonprofit organizations may charge an extra premium over their normal prices because these organizations are largely indifferent to price.
Answer: False Page: 10 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
70. A marketspace is physical, as when you shop in a store.
Answer: False Page: 10 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Use of IT
71. Wants are basic human requirements such as food or air.
Answer: False Page: 12 Difficulty: Medium
72. Demands are wants for specific products backed by an ability to pay.
Answer: True Page: 12 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills
73. Most marketers satisfy everyone in a market—that’s how they stay in business.
Answer: False Page: 13 Difficulty: Medium
74. The customer-value triad consists of a combination of quality, service, and price.
Answer: True Page: 14 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
75. A distribution channel includes distributors, wholesalers, retailers, and agents that display, sell, or deliver the physical product or service(s) to the buyer or user.
Answer: True Page: 14 Difficulty: Easy
76. The main actors in the task environment are the components of demographics, economics, physical setting, technology, the political-legal system, and the social-cultural arena.
Answer: False Page: 14 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
77. Regulation of industries has created greater competition and growth opportunities because the playing field has been leveled.
Answer: False Page: 15 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
78. Industry boundaries are blurring at an incredible rate as companies are recognizing that new opportunities lie at the intersection of two or more industries.
Answer: True Page: 15 Difficulty: Medium
79. The overabundance of information available on the Internet has made it more difficult for consumers to compare product features and prices.
Answer: False Page: 16 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
80. Companies can facilitate and speed external communication among customers by creating online and off-line “buzz” through brand advocates and user communities.
Answer: True Page: 17 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Communication
81. The proliferation of targeted media and communication channels has allowed marketers to become much more aware of their target consumers’ preferences and to customize both products and messages for individual consumers.
Answer: True Page: 17 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication
82. The marketing concept is one of the oldest concepts in business.
Answer: False Page: 18 Difficulty: Medium
83. The selling concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features.
Answer: False Page: 18 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
84. The marketing concept stresses a customer-centered approach to marketing.
Answer: True Page: 19 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills
85. The selling concept is based on the development, design, and implementation of marketing programs, processes, and activities that recognizes their breadth and interdependencies.
Answer: False Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
86. Relationship marketing aims to build mutually satisfying long-term relationships with key parties.
Answer: True Page: 20 Difficulty: Medium
87. Attracting a new customer may cost five times as much as doing a good enough job to retain an existing one.
Answer: True Page: 22 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
88. The marketing-mix component called promotion includes such items as product variety, design, packaging, services, and warranties.
Answer: False Page: 23 Difficulty: Medium
89. When a marketer makes decisions involving channels, assortments, locations, and transportation, the marketer is making what are called place decisions.
Answer: True Page: 23 Difficulty: Medium
90. Advertising, sales promotion, and direct marketing are all part of what is called the offering mix.
Answer: False Page: 23 Difficulty: Medium
91. One of the key themes of integrated marketing is that there are very few marketing activities that can effectively communicate and deliver value.
Answer: False Page: 22 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
92. Internal marketing is an appropriate practice to be used in holistic marketing.
Answer: True Page: 24 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
93. In most companies, marketing should focus on the customer and other departments should focus on the business itself.
Answer: False Page: 24 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
94. Performance marketing involves reviewing metrics assessing market share, customer loss rate, customer satisfaction, and product quality in the evaluation of the effectiveness of marketing activities.
Answer: True Page: 26 Difficulty: Medium
95. The selling relationship concept holds that consumers will prefer products that are ethical, environmentally responsible, legal, and social in the context of marketing activities and programs.
Answer: False Page: 27 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
96. The societal marketing concept holds that the organization’s task is to determine the needs, wants, and interests of target markets and to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors in a way that preserves or enhances the consumer’s and the society’s well-being.
Answer: True Page: 27 Difficulty: Easy
97. Cause-related marketing involves donating a percentage of revenues to a specific cause based on the revenue occurring during the announced period of support.
Answer: True Page: 27 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
98. Making gifts of money, goods, or time to help nonprofit organizations, groups, or individuals is known as corporate philanthropy.
Answer: True Page: 27 Difficulty: Medium
99. To understand what is happening inside and outside the company, the company needs a reliable marketing information system.
Answer: True Page: 28 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
100. Because of surprises and disappointments that can occur as marketing plans are implemented, the company will need feedback and control to improve itself.
Answer: True Page: 30 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Essay
101. Marketing has been described being both an “art” and a “science.” Discuss the differences and similarities between these two marketing thrusts. Provide your theoretical response and a “real-life” example where you have seen both processes work effectively at creating customer value and loyalty.
Suggested Answer: The student should demonstrate his or her understanding that the marketer must use data to understand customer needs and translate this understanding into properly designed products and services. They should also see the “art” side of human behavior, where the customer makes decisions based on emotions, such as the perceived benefits.
Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
102. Marketing people are involved in marketing 10 types of entities. List and briefly characterize those entities.
Suggested Answer: The types of entities that marketing people are involved in marketing are (1) goods—physical goods, (2) services—hotels and car rental, (3) events—time-based events such as trade shows, (4) experiences—Walt Disney’s Magic Kingdom, (5) persons—celebrity marketing, (6) places—cities, states, regions, and even whole nations, (7) properties—intangible rights of ownership of either real property or financial property, (8) organizations—corporate identity, (9) information—information produced and marketed as a product, and (10) ideas—marketing the basic idea of a market offering.
Pages: 6–7 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
103. Marketers are skilled in stimulating demand for a company’s products, but this is too limited a view of the tasks they perform. Just as production and logistics professionals are responsible for supply management, marketers are responsible for demand management. Marketing managers seek to influence the level, timing, and composition of demand to meet the organization’s objectives. List and briefly characterize the eight demand states described in the text.
Suggested Answer: The eight different demand states are (1) negative demand—consumers dislike the product and may even pay a price to avoid it, (2) nonexistent demand—consumers may be unaware or uninterested in the product, (3) latent demand—consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product, (4) declining demand—consumers begin to buy the product less frequently or not at all, (5) irregular demand—consumer purchases vary on a seasonal, monthly, weekly, daily, or even hourly basis, (6) full demand—consumers are adequately buying all products put into the marketplace, (7) overfull demand—more consumers would like to buy the product than can be satisfied, and (8) unwholesome demand—consumers may be attracted to products that have undesirable social consequences.
Page: 8 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
104. We can distinguish among five types of customer needs. List and provide an example of each of those customer needs.
Suggested Answer: The five types of customer needs are (note the example from the text): (1) stated needs—the customer wants an inexpensive car, (2) real needs—the customer wants a car whose operating cost, not its initial price, is low, (3) unstated needs—the customer expects good service from the dealer, (4) delight needs—the customer would like the dealer to include an onboard navigation system, and (5) secret needs—the customer wants to be seen by friends as a savvy consumer.
Pages: 12–13 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
105. Distinguish between the concepts of value and satisfaction.
Suggested Answer: The offering will be successful if it delivers value and satisfaction to the target buyer. The buyer chooses between different offerings on the basis of which is perceived to deliver the most value. Value reflects the perceived tangible and intangible benefits and costs to customers. Value can be seen as primarily a combination of quality, service, and price (called the customer-value triad). Satisfaction reflects a person’s comparative judgments resulting from a product’s perceived performance (or outcome) in relation to his or her expectations.
Pages: 13–14 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
106. Examine and document the factors that have brought about customers’ higher expectations of their suppliers. What are the major shifts in marketing management that have brought about these changes?
Suggested Answer: Students may not understand that our world’s capacity to produce products exceeds the needs. Therefore, customers have more choices and can be more demanding. The time crunch has allowed new providers to enter the market. For example, Netflix competes effectively with Blockbuster Video because they deliver videos to your home. It’s service like this that fits the customer needs to satisfy what money can buy—time. Students may use appropriate marketing management shifts as described in the chapter.
Pages: 16–17 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
107. The competing concepts under which organizations have conducted marketing activities include: the production concept, product concept, selling concept, marketing concept, and holistic marketing concept. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of each concept as defined and presented in your textbook. Which concept do you believe is the most effective? Why?
Suggested Answer: Although students will be expected to research each concept, they should conclude the most effective concept is the holistic marketing concept, where companies need to have a more complete, cohesive approach that goes beyond traditional applications of the marketing concept.
Pages: 18–22 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
108. Increasingly, a key goal of marketing is to develop deep, enduring relationships with all people or organizations that could directly or indirectly affect the success of the firm’s marketing activities. Relationship marketing has the aim of building mutually satisfying long-term relations with key parties—customers, suppliers, distributors, and other marketing partners—in order to earn and retain their business.
Discuss the merits of relationship marketing. Describe in detail a company who is in business today that models relationship marketing.
Suggested Answer: Students should understand the relationship between any supplier and customer is not just in the mechanics of the transaction, but more importantly how the customer is treated during the transaction. The better the relationship, the more apt the customer will remain loyal. They should pick a company that has served them well and made them feel special each and every time.
Pages: 20–22 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication
109. Identify and define the four Ps and the corresponding consumer-oriented SIVA dimensions.
Suggested Answer: The four Ps are: Product (product variety, quality, design, features, brand name, packaging, sizes, services, warranties, returns), Price (list price, discounts, allowances, payment period, credit terms), Promotion (sales promotion, advertising, sales force, public relations, direct marketing), and Place (channels, coverage, assortments, locations, inventory, transportation). A complementary breakdown of marketing activities that approaches the process from a customer-centric viewpoint is the SIVA framework: Solution (How can I solve my problem?), Information (Where can I learn more about it?), Value (What is my total sacrifice to get the solution?), and Access (Where can I find it?).
Page: 23 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
110. According to Starbucks Chairman Howard Schultz, “Consumers now commonly engage in a cultural audit of [product and service] providers. People want to know your value and ethics demonstrated by how you treat employees, the community in which you operate.” Discuss the concept of social responsibility marketing and how it impacts both companies and consumers.
Suggested Answer: The societal marketing concept holds that the organization’s task is to determine the needs, wants, and interests of target markets and to deliver the desired satisfaction more effectively and efficiently than competitors in a way that preserves or enhances the consumer’s and society’s long-term well-being. Many companies actively engaged in corporate social responsibility campaigns to both motivate employees and attract consumers. As goods become more commoditized, and as consumers grow more socially conscious, some companies are adding social responsibility as a way to differentiate themselves from competitors, build consumer preference, and achieve notable sales and profit gains. They believe customers will increasingly look for signs of good corporate citizenship.
Pages: 26–27 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Ethical Reasoning
APPLICATION QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
111. When IKEA noticed that people wanted good furniture at a substantially lower price and created knockdown furniture, they demonstrated marketing savvy and turned a private or social need into a(n) ________.
a. market need
b. profitable business opportunity
c. product development
d. invention
e. customer want
Answer: b Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
112. Car rental firms, barbers, and management consultants provide ________.
a. goods
b. experiences
c. places
d. services
e. information
Answer: d Page: 6 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills
113. Walt Disney’s Magic Kingdom represents ________ marketing: Customers visit a fairy kingdom, a pirate ship, or a haunted house.
a. experiential
b. services
c. event
d. celebrity
e. goods
Answer: a Page: 6 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
114. Janet is very upset that she can’t get tickets to the new Rolling Stones concert. “Why do they keep advertising the show if you can’t get tickets?” wonders Janet. Which of the following demand states applies to Janet’s situation?
a. nonexistent demand
b. latent demand
c. full demand
d. unwholesome demand
e. overfull demand
Answer: e Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
115. When Jack purchases his air-conditioning unit in the winter to avoid the high prices found in the summer, he is exhibiting ________ demand.
a. irregular
b. declining
c. impulse
d. latent
e. negative
Answer: a Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
116. Julia hates smoking and is willing to pay an extra tax just to help eliminate smoking in her city. She is exhibiting ________ with respect to smoking.
a. negative demand
b. nonexistent demand
c. latent demand
d. declining demand
e. unwholesome demand
Answer: a Page: 8 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
117. In a modern exchange economy, all of the following markets are likely to exist EXCEPT ________.
a. resource market
b. manufacturer market
c. government market
d. consumer market
e. class market
Answer: e Page: 9 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
118. In a simple marketing system, if the automobile industry sends advertising and personal sales messages to prospective buyers, it expects ________ in exchange.
a. goods
b. services
c. money
d. information
e. image enhancement
Answer: d Page: 9 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
119. Automobile manufactures, new car and used car dealers, financing companies, and insurance companies are all part of the automobile ________.
a. marketplace
b. marketspace
c. metamediary
d. marketportal
e. metamarket
Answer: e Page: 10 Difficulty: Medium
120. When Frank identifies a marketing opportunity to market his company’s ski and snowboard helmets to baby boomers interested in winter sports through advertisements in enthusiast magazines, Frank is going through the _____.
a. metamarket
b. marketing planning process
c. social marketing concept
d. supply chain conglomeration
e. negative demand
Answer: b Page: 11 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
121. When a customer has a(n) ________ need, the customer might expect something like admiration from friends because he or she has purchased something that might indicate a certain market savvy.
a. real
b. unstated
c. delight
d. secret
e. stated
Answer: d Page: 13 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
122. When Volvo runs advertisements suggesting that it is the safest car money can buy, it is engaging in which of the following forms of marketing programming?
a. Technological
b. Service
c. Market segmentation
d. Public relations
e. Positioning
Answer: e Page: 13 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication
123. When online dot-coms, such as eBay and Amazon.com cut out the majority of middlemen that normally would participate in the exchange process, they were advocating ________.
a. category killers
b. every-day-low prices
c. reintermediation
d. disintermediation
e. supply chain conglomeration
Answer: d Page: 16 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Use of IT
124. Under which of the following company orientations toward the marketplace would we expect to find the “better mousetrap” fallacy?
a. Production concept
b. Product concept
c. Selling concept
d. Marketing concept
e. Holistic marketing concept.
Answer: b Page: 18 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
125. If marketers are characterized as “gardening” rather than “hunting,” the ________ is most likely to be the concept the marketers are following.
a. production concept
b. product concept
c. selling concept
d. marketing concept
e. social responsibility concept
Answer: d Page: 19 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
126. When 3M, HP, and Motorola practice researching or imaging latent needs of consumers through a “probe-and-learn” process, they are most likely using which of the following marketing orientations with respect to their consumers?
a. Selling orientation
b. Promotion orientation
c. Supply-side orientation
d. Reactive market orientation
e. Proactive marketing orientation
Answer: e Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
127. Companies that practice ________ are implementing a total market orientation and are likely to be the most successful.
a. reactive market orientation
b. proactive marketing orientation
c. both reactive and proactive marketing orientation
d. consolidation and acquisition
e. “invent and market”
Answer: c Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
128. In which of the following dimensions of holistic marketing might we find an emphasis on communications, products and services, and channels?
a. Internal marketing
b. Integrated marketing
c. Socially responsible marketing
d. Global marketing
e. Relationship marketing
Answer: b Page: 21 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
129. Kroger supermarkets are aggressively pursuing a strategy of capturing a larger share of the customer’s “stomach.” Which of the following shifts in marketing management is most appropriate for this example?
a. From relying on old market positions to uncovering new ones.
b. From marketing does the marketing to everyone does the marketing.
c. From a focus on gaining market share to a focus on building customer share.
d. From focusing on profitable transactions to focusing on customer lifetime value.
e. From building brands through advertising to building brands through performance and integrated communications.
Answer: c Page: 22 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
130. A number of companies—including the Body Shop, Ben & Jerry’s, and Patagonia—have achieved notable sales and profit gains by adopting and practicing a form of the societal marketing concept called ________, by which a company with an image, product, or service to market builds a relationship or partnership with a cause, or a number of causes, for mutual benefit.
a. social marketing
b. environmental marketing
c. cause-related marketing
d. benefit marketing
e. responsible marketing
Answer: c Page: 27 Difficulty: Easy
Short Answer
131. What would be a good social definition of marketing?
Suggested Answer: Marketing is a societal process by which individuals and groups obtain what they need and want through creating, offering, and freely exchanging products and services of value with others.
Page: 5 Difficulty: Medium
132. Discuss the eight demand states with respect to bifocal lenses for glasses.
Suggested Answer: Student answers may vary, but a possible answer includes the following: (1) negative demand—many people don’t want to admit they need bifocals, (2) nonexistent demand—when bifocal lenses were first introduced, people didn’t know they existed, (3) latent demand—before they were introduced, many people thought such a product would be nice, but didn’t think it would ever exist, (4) declining demand—this will occur when something better is invented, such as surgery to repair the eyes, (5) irregular demand—the consumer perceives a need for eye care devices only periodically, possibly when they begin having trouble seeing, (6) full demand—the manufacturers of the lenses are making all they possibly can, (7) overfull demand—the manufacturers of the lenses can’t make enough and inventories are low, and (8) unwholesome demand—seeking alternatives, consumers may find that alternatives have undesirable social consequences.
Page: 8 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
133. New terms are now being used to describe where marketing is done. Using the automobile market, describe automotive buying behavior for a: (1) marketplace, (2) marketspace, and (3) metamarket.
Suggested Answer: Responses to this question should include a reference to the following: (1) marketplace—shopping for an automobile at a dealer’s lot, (2) marketspace—shopping for an automobile via the Internet, eBay, or even designing your own car via a manufacturer’s Web site, and (3) metamarket—(a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely related in the customer’s mind but are spread across a diverse set of industries) that might include insurance companies, the racing industry, the travel industry, the customization industry, et cetera. Individual answers might vary.
Page: 10 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
134. Identify the five key functions of the CMO in leading marketing within the organization.
Suggested Answer: The five key functions of the CMO in leading marketing within the organization are: (1) strengthening brands, (2) measuring marketing effectiveness, (3) driving new-product development based on customer needs, (4) getting meaningful customer insights, (5) utilizing new marketing technology.
Page: 11 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
135. Assume that you have been given the task of assisting a company in designing its marketing planning process. What components should be in such a process? Be specific in your answer.
Suggested Answer: The marketing planning process consists of analyzing marketing opportunities, selecting target markets, designing strategies, developing marketing programs, and managing the marketing effort. Students might also review Figure 1.6 for additional information.
Page: 11 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
136. Consumers often have many needs that are not readily obvious. Just observing their behavior inside a retail store is not enough to get a true feel for their “needs.” List and briefly describe the five types of needs that most consumers have.
Suggested Answer: The various consumer needs are: (1) stated needs—what the consumer says he or she wants—a car, (2) real needs—the customer wants a car whose operating costs, not its initial price, is low, (3) unstated needs—the customer expects good service and honesty from the dealer, (4) delight needs—the customer would like a DVD player set-up thrown in to guarantee a quick signing of the purchase agreement, and (5) secret needs—inner fantasies such as gaining prestige with members of the opposite sex or friends.
Pages: 12–13 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
137. Wal-Mart knows that to reach its target markets three kinds of marketing channels may be used. What are these three marketing channels and how might Wal-Mart use each of them?
Suggested Answer: The three marketing channels are communication, distribution, and service channels. Wal-Mart could use advertising to communicate price specials to consumers (communication channel), use wholesalers to assemble merchandise assortments to be sold in the Wal-Mart stores (distribution channels), and use transportation companies (service channels) to extend Wal-Mart’s global reach.
Page: 14 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
138. The marketplace isn’t what it used to be. List and briefly discuss what new behaviors, new opportunities, and new challenges await the marketer in the 21st century.
Suggested Answer: Responses to this question should include: (1) changing technology, (2) globalization, (3) deregulation, (4) privatization, (5) customer resistance, (6) heightened competition, (7) industry convergence, (8) retail transformation, and (9) disintermediation.
Pages: 15–16 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
139. The digital revolution has placed a whole new set of capabilities in the hands of consumers and businesses. Consider what consumers have today that they didn’t have yesterday. As indicated in the chapter, what would appear on such a list?
Suggested Answer: Responses to this question should include: (1) a substantial increase in buying power, (2) a greater variety of available goods and services, (3) a great amount of information about practically anything, (4) a greater ease in interacting and placing and receiving orders, and (5) an ability to compare notes on products and services.
Page: 16 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Use of IT
140. Discuss the concept of disintermediation and provide an example.
Suggested Answer: Disintermediation grew out of the rush to embrace the dot-coms and e-commerce. Essentially, the dot-coms removed many of the traditional intermediaries that brought goods and services to consumers by encouraging consumers to deal directly with the dot-coms via the Internet. “Brick-and-click” businesses eventually brought some of the intermediaries back through a process called reintermediation.
Page: 16 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Use of IT
141. The Internet has given today’s companies a new set of capabilities. Among those capabilities is the ability to operate a new information channel. Describe how information can be used by the marketer in this new channel.
Suggested Answer: Companies can operate a powerful new information and sales channel, the Internet, with augmented geographical reach to inform and promote their businesses and products worldwide. By establishing one or more Web sites, a company can list its products and services, its history, its business philosophy, its job opportunities, and other information of interest to visitors. For additional information, see chapter section.
Page: 17 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Use of IT
142. Arthur Jones has decided to build his manufacturing business (lawn mowers) around the production concept. If this approach is taken, what will be Mr. Jones’ primary areas of concentration as he builds his business?
Suggested Answer: This orientation holds that consumers will prefer products that are widely available and inexpensive. Managers of production-oriented businesses concentrate on high production efficiency, low costs, and mass distribution. This approach is also used when a company wants to expand the market. Students may use these facts as they design their answer.
Page: 18 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
143. Illustrate the differences between a reactive market orientation and a proactive marketing orientation. Give an example of a company that uses a proactive marketing orientation
Suggested Answer: In a reactive market orientation a company might be content to keep up with understanding and meeting customers’ expressed needs. In a proactive market orientation a company such as Motorola might prefer to make a practice of researching and imagining latent needs through a “probe-and-learn” process. Students’ answers may vary but the basic concepts of reaction and proactivity should be clear in answers.
Page: 19 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
144. The ultimate outcome of relationship marketing is the building of a unique company asset called a marketing network. What would be the parts of a marketing network for a motorcycle company such as Harley-Davidson?
Suggested Answer: A marketing network consists of the company and its supporting stakeholders. These stakeholders (in Harley-Davidson’s case) might be customers, employees, suppliers, distributors, retailers, repair services, ad agencies, lobby groups, and motorcycle support clubs. The operating principle is simple: Build an effective network of relationships with key stakeholders, and profits will follow.
Page: 22 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
145. Linda Evans has been given the task of developing the product portion of her company’s marketing mix. List the components that will likely be included in this element of the marketing mix.
Suggested Answer: Product variety, quality, design, features, brand names, packaging, sizes, services, warranties, and returns are the key elements of the product portion of the marketing mix. To see a more complete diagram of the four Ps process, see Figure 1.5.
Page: 23 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
146. Discuss how companies can use the Internet to build their brands. Give an example of a company that has done so.
Suggested Answer: Online marketing activities can be used to build brands by increasing consumer exposure to the brand and creating an interactive experience between the customer and the brand, giving consumers access not only to company-created information but also consumer-generated content. For example, Carnival Connections, an online cruise-booking site, made it easy for cruise fans to compare notes on cruise destinations and onboard entertainment.
Pages: 23–24 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
147. Define internal marketing and its role in the company. Outline how various departments within the company outside marketing can demonstrate a customer focus.
Suggested Answer: Internal marketing must take place on two levels. At one level, the various marketing functions must work together. At the second level, other departments must embrace marketing and “think customer.” Students may use Table 1.1 to furnish various examples of customer-centric focus outside the marketing department.
Pages: 24–25 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
148. According to information provided in the chapter, McDonald’s has been involved in a variety of corporate social initiatives. Give an example of how McDonald’s might initiate cause-related marketing, and define what cause-related marketing is.
Suggested Answer: Cause-related marketing is donating a percentage of revenues to a specific cause based on revenue occurring during the announced period of support. The example used in the chapter noted McDonald’s earmarking of $1 for Ronald McDonald Children’s Charities from the sale of every Big Mac and pizza sold on McHappy Day. Students may create additional examples but each should meet the parameters set above.
Page: 27 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
149. You have been given the assignment of justifying cause-related marketing to your board of directors. What would be your primary argument in favor of such a proposal?
Suggested Answer: Companies see cause-related marketing as an opportunity to enhance their corporate reputation, raise brand awareness, increase customer loyalty, build sales, and increase press coverage. They believe customers will increasingly look for signs of good corporate citizenship that go beyond supplying rational and emotional benefits.
Page: 27 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Ethical Reasoning
150. Your firm is in the process of moving from focusing on a financial scorecard as the basis for running and evaluating your organization to a marketing scorecard approach. What is a marketing scorecard approach and what might be some of its components?
Suggested Answer: Top management is going beyond sales revenue alone to examine the marketing scorecard. Today, the shift to the marketing scorecard attempts to interpret what is happening to market share, customer loss rate, customer satisfaction, product quality, and other measures. Managers know changes in marketing indicators predict changes in financial results.
Pages: 26–27 Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Sunday, September 27, 2009
Friday, September 4, 2009
Human Resource Management Questions Dessler- Ch. 4
Chapter 4: Job Analysis
Multiple Choice
1. _____ is the procedures through which one determines the duties associated with positions and the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job analysis
d. Job context
e. None of the above
(c; easy)
2. The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing _____.
a. job descriptions
b. work activities
c. work aids
d. job context
e. performance standards
(a; easy)
3. Which of the following types of information can be collected via a job analysis?
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. performance standards
d. job context
e. all of the above
(e; moderate)
4. Information regarding job demands such as lifting weights or walking long distances is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(b; moderate)
5. Information regarding how, why, and when a worker performs each activity is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(a; moderate)
6. Information regarding the quantity or quality levels for each job duty is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(d; moderate)
7. Information regarding job-related knowledge or skills and required personal attributes is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. human requirements
d. performance standards
e. job context
(c; moderate)
8. Information regarding matters such as physical working conditions and work schedule is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(e; moderate)
9. There are _____ steps in doing a job analysis.
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
e. ten
(d; easy)
10. Deciding how to use the resulting information is the _____ step in doing a job analysis.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(a; moderate)
11. The first step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(a; moderate)
12. 12. Reviewing relevant background information such as organization charts, process charts, and job descriptions is the _____ step in doing a job analysis.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(b; moderate)
13. The second step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(b; moderate)
14. Selecting representative positions to use in the job analysis is the _____ step in the process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(c; moderate)
15. The third step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(c; moderate)
16. Collecting data on job activities, required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(d; moderate)
17. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(d; moderate)
18. Verifying the job analysis information with the worker performing the job and with his or her immediate supervisor is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(e; moderate)
19. The fifth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. verifying the job analysis information
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(c; moderate)
20. Developing a job description and job specification is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. second
b. third
c. fourth
d. fifth
e. sixth
(e; moderate)
21. The final step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(e; moderate)
22. A(n) _____ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job being analyzed.
a. organization chart
b. process chart
c. value chain
d. job preview
e. job description
(b; moderate)
23. Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities and responsibilities of the job?
a. job specification
b. job analysis
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
(d; moderate)
24. A _____ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the job done.
a. job specification
b. job analysis
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
(a; moderate)
25. Which of the following is included in the job specifications?
a. personal qualities
b. traits
c. skills
d. required background
e. all of the above
(e; easy)
26. Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?
a. interviews
b. questionnaires
c. observation
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; moderate)
27. Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?
a. individual employees
b. groups of employees with the same job
c. supervisors who know the job
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; moderate)
28. Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
a. it is simple to use
b. some information may be exaggerated or minimized
c. it is quick to collect information
d. it can identify uncommon, but important activities
e. it can be used to explain need for job analysis
(b; moderate)
29. Interviews often include questions about _____.
a. supervisory responsibilities
b. job duties
c. education
d. experience
e. all of the above
(e; easy)
30. In addition to identifying the specific duties associated with a job, a job analysis should also seek to identify the _____.
a. length of time an employee has held the position
b. order of importance
c. frequency of occurrence
d. all of the above
e. b and c only
(e; difficult)
31. For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis?
a. assembly-line worker
b. accounting clerk
c. engineer
d. receptionist
e. salesperson
(c; difficult)
32. A _____ is the time it takes to complete a job.
a. job specification
b. work cycle
c. work week
d. shift
e. none of the above
(b; moderate)
33. The average cycle time is a(n) _____.
a. minute
b. hour
c. day
d. week
e. it depends on the specific job
(e; easy)
34. When workers change what they would normally do because they are being watched, _____ has occurred.
a. proactivity
b. reactivity
c. cycling
d. diverting
e. none of the above
(b; moderate)
35. Which two data collection methods are frequently used together?
a. direct observation and interviewing
b. questionnaires and direct observation
c. interviewing and questionnaires
d. diaries and interviewing
e. most are used individually
(a; difficult)
36. Jin records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data collection for job analysis is based on _____.
a. diaries
b. interviews
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
e. supervisor verification
(a; easy)
37. Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?
a. position analysis questionnaire
b. interviews
c. Department of Labor approach
d. functional job analysis
e. all are qualitative approaches
(b; difficult)
38. Which of the following is considered a quantitative approach to job analysis?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. Department of Labor Procedure
d. direct observation
e. questionnaires
(c; difficult)
39. What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
e. none of the above
(b; easy)
40. Which of the following is not one of the basic activities included in a position analysis questionnaire?
a. performing skilled activities
b. being physically active
c. operating equipment
d. processing information
e. all are included in a position analysis questionnaire
(e; moderate)
41. The _____ assigns a quantitative score to each job based on its decision-making, skilled activity, physical activity, equipment operation, and information-processing characteristics.
a. Department of Labor Procedure
b. position analysis questionnaire
c. functional job analysis
d. log approach
e. all of the above
(b; moderate)
42. Which quantitative job analysis technique can be conducted online?
a. position analysis questionnaire
b. Department of Labor Procedure
c. functional job analysis
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(a; difficult)
43. Which of the following is included in a functional job analysis?
a. the extent to which specific instructions are necessary to perform the task
b. the extent to which reasoning and judgment are required to perform the task
c. the mathematical ability required to perform the task
d. the verbal and language facilities required to perform the task
e. all of the above
(e; moderate)
44. Most job descriptions contain sections that cover _____.
a. job summary
b. standards of performance
c. working conditions
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; easy)
45. One uses information from the _____ to write a job specification.
a. job summary
b. job identification
c. job description
d. standards for performance
e. job advertisement
(c; moderate)
46. What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?
a. job title
b. job summary
c. relationships statement
d. major functions or activities
e. all of the above
(a; difficult)
47. Which section of a job description should define the limits of the jobholder’s authority, direct supervision of other personnel, and budgetary limitations?
a. job identification
b. job summary
c. relationships
d. responsibilities and duties
e. pay levels
(d; moderate)
48. When is an employer required to make a “reasonable accommodation” for a disabled individual?
a. any time a disabled individual applies for a position
b. employers are only encouraged to make reasonable accommodations
c. when a disabled individual has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job, but can’t because of the job’s current structure
d. when it would present an undue hardship
e. when the job function is essential
(c; moderate)
49. Job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, are called _____.
a. essential job functions
b. job requirements
c. primary job activities
d. work activities
e. all of the above
(a; easy)
50. The job specification takes the job description and answers the question, _____?
a. What human traits and experience are required to do this job well
b. When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker’s work
c. What are the four main activities making up this job
d. How many other employees are available to perform job functions
e. What are the performance standards for the job
(a; difficult)
51. When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include _____.
a. quality of training
b. length of previous service
c. previous job performance
d. physical traits
e. all of the above
(d; moderate)
52. Which of the following work behaviors is considered “generic” or important to all jobs?
a. industriousness
b. intelligence
c. experience
d. morality
e. motivation
(a; moderate)
53. All of the following work behaviors are considered “generic” or important to all jobs except _____.
a. thoroughness
b. attendance
c. experience
d. schedule flexibility
e. industriousness
(c; moderate)
54. _____ means assigning workers additional same-level activities, thus increasing the number of activities they perform.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(d; easy)
55. _____ means systematically moving workers from one job to another.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(a; easy)
56. ______ means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(b; easy)
57. Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment?
a. Adam Smith
b. Frederick Taylor
c. Frederick Herzberg
d. Abraham Maslow
e. Milton Friedman
(c; moderate)
58. _____ refers to broadening the responsibilities of the company’s jobs, and encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Dejobbing
(e; easy)
59. Dejobbing can be described as _____.
a. assigning workers additional work at the same level
b. redesigning jobs to increase opportunities for responsibility
c. moving workers from one job to another
d. encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions
e. focusing workers on highly specialized jobs
(d; moderate)
60. Job enrichment can be described as _____.
a. assigning workers additional work at the same level
b. redesigning jobs to increase opportunities for responsibility
c. moving workers from one job to another
d. encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions
e. focusing workers on highly specialized jobs
(b; moderate)
61. Jon works at Hotel International. Some weeks he works in catering but he also works in housekeeping, and in reservations periodically. This is an example of _____.
a. job enlargement
b. job rotation
c. job enrichment
d. dejobbing
e. job specialization
(b; easy)
62. The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance is called _____.
a. job redesign
b. reengineering
c. process engineering
d. job enlargement
e. outsourcing
(b; easy)
63. Describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, and behavioral competencies necessary for good job performance is called a _____.
a. competency-based job analysis
b. administrative procedure
c. functional job analysis
d. standard classification system
e. none of the above
(a; easy)
64. Competency analysis focuses on _____.
a. what is accomplished
b. how work is accomplished
c. when work is accomplished
d. who accomplishes the work
e. where the work is accomplished
(b; difficult)
65. Traditional job analysis focuses on _____.
a. what is accomplished
b. how work is accomplished
c. when work is accomplished
d. who accomplishes the work
e. where the work is accomplished
(a; difficult)
66. Job competencies are always _____.
a. measurable
b. observable
c. based on goals
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
(d; easy)
67. When a supervisor bases an employee’s training, appraisals, and rewards on the skills and competences he or she needs to achieve his or her goals, the supervisor is using _____.
a. competency analysis
b. traditional analysis
c. performance management
d. functional systems management
e. none of the above
(c; moderate)
True/ False
68. Job analysis produces information used for writing job descriptions and job specifications. (T; easy)
69. The information gathered during a job analysis is primarily used for listing what jobs entail and what kind of people to hire for the job. (T; easy)
70. A process chart shows the organization-wide division of work, how the job in question relates to other jobs, and where the job fits in the overall organization. (F; moderate)
71. Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist. (F; moderate)
72. The interview is the most widely used method for identifying job duties and responsibilities. (T; easy)
73. Job analysis is often a prelude to changing a job’s pay rate. (T; moderate)
74. Interviews used for job analysis typically follow an unstructured format. (F; easy)
75. After completing an interview, the data should be verified with the worker’s immediate supervisor. (T; moderate)
76. Observation as a data collection method in a job analysis is most appropriate for jobs entailing a lot of mental activity. (F; easy)
77. Employers may provide employees pocket dictating machines and pagers to record activities at random times of the work day. (T; moderate)
78. Qualitative approaches are more appropriate than quantitative approaches when one seeks to compare jobs for pay purposes. (F; moderate)
79. There is no standard format for writing a job description. (T; moderate)
80. The statistical analysis method for job specifications is more defensible than the judgmental approach because equal rights legislation forbids using traits that can’t distinguish between high and low job performers. (T; moderate)
81. Job enlargement refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases responsibility and achievement. (F; moderate)
82. Job rotation is another term for dejobbing. (F; easy)
83. Boundaryless organizations use teams and other mechanisms to make boundaries more permeable. (T; moderate)
84. In reengineered situations, workers tend to become collectively responsible for overall results rather than being individually responsible for just their own tasks. (T; difficult)
85. Job analysis experts are concerned that in high performance work environments in which employers need workers to seamlessly move from job to job and exercise self-control, job descriptions based on lists of job-specific duties may actually inhibit the flexible behavior companies need. (T; moderate)
86. Organizations define competencies in the same way. (F; moderate)
87. Functional-based job analysis means describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, behavioral competencies that an employee doing that job must exhibit to do the job well. (F; difficult)
88. Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis. (F; difficult)
89. Competency analysis focuses on how the worker meets the job’s objectives or actually accomplishes the work. (T; moderate)
90. Performance management means basing employee training, appraisals, and rewards on the skills and competencies he or she needs to achieve his or her goals. (T; moderate)
91. A job’s required competencies might include general competencies, leadership competencies, and technical competencies. (T; moderate)
Essay/ Short Answer
92. Explain how job analysis provides information useful in recruitment and selection, compensation, and performance appraisal. (moderate)
Answer: Job analysis provides information for recruitment and selection by laying out what the job entails and what human characteristics are required to perform these activities. This information helps management decide what sort of people to recruit and hire. Job analysis information is also crucial for estimating the value of each job and its appropriate compensation. A performance appraisal compares each employee’s actual performance with his or her performance standards. Managers use job analysis to determine the job’s specific activities and performance standards.
93. List the steps in conducting a job analysis. (moderate)
Answer: There are six steps in doing a job analysis. Step 1 is to decide how one will use the information. Step 2 is to review relevant background information such as organization charts, process charts, and job descriptions. Step 3 is to select representative positions. Step 4 is to analyze the job by collecting data on job activities, required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job. Step 5 is to verify the job analysis information with the worker performing the job and with his or her immediate supervisor. Step 6 is to develop a job description and job specification.
94. Explain how a job analysis typically involves a joint effort by an HR specialist, the worker, and the worker’s supervisor. (moderate)
Answer: The HR specialist might observe and analyze the job and then develop a job description and specification. The supervisor and worker may fill out questionnaires listing the subordinate’s activities. The supervisor and worker may then review and verify the job analyst’s conclusions regarding the job’s activities and duties.
95. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using interviews to collect job analysis data? (moderate)
Answer: Interviews are relatively simple and quick way to collect data. Skilled interviewers can gather information that might otherwise go undiscovered. Some activities might occur only occasionally or be more informal in nature. Interviews can discover these types of activities. The interview also offers an opportunity to explain the need for a job analysis. The biggest drawback is the chance for information to be distorted either to outright falsification or honest misunderstanding.
96. Explain the advantage of using a position analysis questionnaire to analyze a job. (difficult)
Answer: The advantage of the PAQ is that it provides a quantitative score or profile of any job in terms of how that job rates on five basic activities: 1) having decision-making/ communication/ social responsibilities, 2) performing skilled activities, 3) being physically active, 4) operating vehicles/ equipment, and 5) processing information. Its real strength is in classifying jobs. Jobs can then be compared quantitatively.
97. When is a job function essential? (moderate)
Answer: A job function is essential when it is the reason the position exists or when the function is so specialized that the firm hired the person doing the job for his or her expertise or ability to perform that particular function. Essential job functions are the job duties that employees must be able to perform.
98. What job-related behaviors are considered generic and important to all jobs? (moderate)
Answer: Regardless of the job, the following work behaviors are important to all jobs: industriousness, thoroughness, schedule flexibility, attendance, off-task behavior (reverse), unruliness (reverse), theft (reverse), and drug misuse (reverse).
99. What are the five steps for establishing job specifications based on statistical analysis? (difficult)
Answer: Step 1: Analyze the job and decide how to measure job performance. Step 2: Select personal traits like finger dexterity that you believe should predict successful performance. Step 3: Test candidates for these traits. Step 4: Measure these candidates’ subsequent job performance. Step 5: Statistically analyze the relationship between the human trait and job performance.
100. Explain the difference between job enlargement and job enrichment. (easy)
Answer: Job enlargement means assigning workers additional same-level activities to increase the number of activities they perform. Job enrichment means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
Multiple Choice
1. _____ is the procedures through which one determines the duties associated with positions and the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job analysis
d. Job context
e. None of the above
(c; easy)
2. The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing _____.
a. job descriptions
b. work activities
c. work aids
d. job context
e. performance standards
(a; easy)
3. Which of the following types of information can be collected via a job analysis?
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. performance standards
d. job context
e. all of the above
(e; moderate)
4. Information regarding job demands such as lifting weights or walking long distances is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(b; moderate)
5. Information regarding how, why, and when a worker performs each activity is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(a; moderate)
6. Information regarding the quantity or quality levels for each job duty is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(d; moderate)
7. Information regarding job-related knowledge or skills and required personal attributes is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. human requirements
d. performance standards
e. job context
(c; moderate)
8. Information regarding matters such as physical working conditions and work schedule is included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
(e; moderate)
9. There are _____ steps in doing a job analysis.
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
e. ten
(d; easy)
10. Deciding how to use the resulting information is the _____ step in doing a job analysis.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(a; moderate)
11. The first step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(a; moderate)
12. 12. Reviewing relevant background information such as organization charts, process charts, and job descriptions is the _____ step in doing a job analysis.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(b; moderate)
13. The second step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(b; moderate)
14. Selecting representative positions to use in the job analysis is the _____ step in the process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(c; moderate)
15. The third step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(c; moderate)
16. Collecting data on job activities, required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(d; moderate)
17. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(d; moderate)
18. Verifying the job analysis information with the worker performing the job and with his or her immediate supervisor is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
(e; moderate)
19. The fifth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. verifying the job analysis information
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(c; moderate)
20. Developing a job description and job specification is the _____ step in the job analysis process.
a. second
b. third
c. fourth
d. fifth
e. sixth
(e; moderate)
21. The final step in conducting a job analysis is _____.
a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
(e; moderate)
22. A(n) _____ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job being analyzed.
a. organization chart
b. process chart
c. value chain
d. job preview
e. job description
(b; moderate)
23. Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities and responsibilities of the job?
a. job specification
b. job analysis
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
(d; moderate)
24. A _____ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the job done.
a. job specification
b. job analysis
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
(a; moderate)
25. Which of the following is included in the job specifications?
a. personal qualities
b. traits
c. skills
d. required background
e. all of the above
(e; easy)
26. Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?
a. interviews
b. questionnaires
c. observation
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; moderate)
27. Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?
a. individual employees
b. groups of employees with the same job
c. supervisors who know the job
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; moderate)
28. Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
a. it is simple to use
b. some information may be exaggerated or minimized
c. it is quick to collect information
d. it can identify uncommon, but important activities
e. it can be used to explain need for job analysis
(b; moderate)
29. Interviews often include questions about _____.
a. supervisory responsibilities
b. job duties
c. education
d. experience
e. all of the above
(e; easy)
30. In addition to identifying the specific duties associated with a job, a job analysis should also seek to identify the _____.
a. length of time an employee has held the position
b. order of importance
c. frequency of occurrence
d. all of the above
e. b and c only
(e; difficult)
31. For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis?
a. assembly-line worker
b. accounting clerk
c. engineer
d. receptionist
e. salesperson
(c; difficult)
32. A _____ is the time it takes to complete a job.
a. job specification
b. work cycle
c. work week
d. shift
e. none of the above
(b; moderate)
33. The average cycle time is a(n) _____.
a. minute
b. hour
c. day
d. week
e. it depends on the specific job
(e; easy)
34. When workers change what they would normally do because they are being watched, _____ has occurred.
a. proactivity
b. reactivity
c. cycling
d. diverting
e. none of the above
(b; moderate)
35. Which two data collection methods are frequently used together?
a. direct observation and interviewing
b. questionnaires and direct observation
c. interviewing and questionnaires
d. diaries and interviewing
e. most are used individually
(a; difficult)
36. Jin records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data collection for job analysis is based on _____.
a. diaries
b. interviews
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
e. supervisor verification
(a; easy)
37. Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?
a. position analysis questionnaire
b. interviews
c. Department of Labor approach
d. functional job analysis
e. all are qualitative approaches
(b; difficult)
38. Which of the following is considered a quantitative approach to job analysis?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. Department of Labor Procedure
d. direct observation
e. questionnaires
(c; difficult)
39. What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
e. none of the above
(b; easy)
40. Which of the following is not one of the basic activities included in a position analysis questionnaire?
a. performing skilled activities
b. being physically active
c. operating equipment
d. processing information
e. all are included in a position analysis questionnaire
(e; moderate)
41. The _____ assigns a quantitative score to each job based on its decision-making, skilled activity, physical activity, equipment operation, and information-processing characteristics.
a. Department of Labor Procedure
b. position analysis questionnaire
c. functional job analysis
d. log approach
e. all of the above
(b; moderate)
42. Which quantitative job analysis technique can be conducted online?
a. position analysis questionnaire
b. Department of Labor Procedure
c. functional job analysis
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(a; difficult)
43. Which of the following is included in a functional job analysis?
a. the extent to which specific instructions are necessary to perform the task
b. the extent to which reasoning and judgment are required to perform the task
c. the mathematical ability required to perform the task
d. the verbal and language facilities required to perform the task
e. all of the above
(e; moderate)
44. Most job descriptions contain sections that cover _____.
a. job summary
b. standards of performance
c. working conditions
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; easy)
45. One uses information from the _____ to write a job specification.
a. job summary
b. job identification
c. job description
d. standards for performance
e. job advertisement
(c; moderate)
46. What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?
a. job title
b. job summary
c. relationships statement
d. major functions or activities
e. all of the above
(a; difficult)
47. Which section of a job description should define the limits of the jobholder’s authority, direct supervision of other personnel, and budgetary limitations?
a. job identification
b. job summary
c. relationships
d. responsibilities and duties
e. pay levels
(d; moderate)
48. When is an employer required to make a “reasonable accommodation” for a disabled individual?
a. any time a disabled individual applies for a position
b. employers are only encouraged to make reasonable accommodations
c. when a disabled individual has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job, but can’t because of the job’s current structure
d. when it would present an undue hardship
e. when the job function is essential
(c; moderate)
49. Job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, are called _____.
a. essential job functions
b. job requirements
c. primary job activities
d. work activities
e. all of the above
(a; easy)
50. The job specification takes the job description and answers the question, _____?
a. What human traits and experience are required to do this job well
b. When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker’s work
c. What are the four main activities making up this job
d. How many other employees are available to perform job functions
e. What are the performance standards for the job
(a; difficult)
51. When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include _____.
a. quality of training
b. length of previous service
c. previous job performance
d. physical traits
e. all of the above
(d; moderate)
52. Which of the following work behaviors is considered “generic” or important to all jobs?
a. industriousness
b. intelligence
c. experience
d. morality
e. motivation
(a; moderate)
53. All of the following work behaviors are considered “generic” or important to all jobs except _____.
a. thoroughness
b. attendance
c. experience
d. schedule flexibility
e. industriousness
(c; moderate)
54. _____ means assigning workers additional same-level activities, thus increasing the number of activities they perform.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(d; easy)
55. _____ means systematically moving workers from one job to another.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(a; easy)
56. ______ means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
(b; easy)
57. Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment?
a. Adam Smith
b. Frederick Taylor
c. Frederick Herzberg
d. Abraham Maslow
e. Milton Friedman
(c; moderate)
58. _____ refers to broadening the responsibilities of the company’s jobs, and encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Dejobbing
(e; easy)
59. Dejobbing can be described as _____.
a. assigning workers additional work at the same level
b. redesigning jobs to increase opportunities for responsibility
c. moving workers from one job to another
d. encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions
e. focusing workers on highly specialized jobs
(d; moderate)
60. Job enrichment can be described as _____.
a. assigning workers additional work at the same level
b. redesigning jobs to increase opportunities for responsibility
c. moving workers from one job to another
d. encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions
e. focusing workers on highly specialized jobs
(b; moderate)
61. Jon works at Hotel International. Some weeks he works in catering but he also works in housekeeping, and in reservations periodically. This is an example of _____.
a. job enlargement
b. job rotation
c. job enrichment
d. dejobbing
e. job specialization
(b; easy)
62. The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance is called _____.
a. job redesign
b. reengineering
c. process engineering
d. job enlargement
e. outsourcing
(b; easy)
63. Describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, and behavioral competencies necessary for good job performance is called a _____.
a. competency-based job analysis
b. administrative procedure
c. functional job analysis
d. standard classification system
e. none of the above
(a; easy)
64. Competency analysis focuses on _____.
a. what is accomplished
b. how work is accomplished
c. when work is accomplished
d. who accomplishes the work
e. where the work is accomplished
(b; difficult)
65. Traditional job analysis focuses on _____.
a. what is accomplished
b. how work is accomplished
c. when work is accomplished
d. who accomplishes the work
e. where the work is accomplished
(a; difficult)
66. Job competencies are always _____.
a. measurable
b. observable
c. based on goals
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
(d; easy)
67. When a supervisor bases an employee’s training, appraisals, and rewards on the skills and competences he or she needs to achieve his or her goals, the supervisor is using _____.
a. competency analysis
b. traditional analysis
c. performance management
d. functional systems management
e. none of the above
(c; moderate)
True/ False
68. Job analysis produces information used for writing job descriptions and job specifications. (T; easy)
69. The information gathered during a job analysis is primarily used for listing what jobs entail and what kind of people to hire for the job. (T; easy)
70. A process chart shows the organization-wide division of work, how the job in question relates to other jobs, and where the job fits in the overall organization. (F; moderate)
71. Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist. (F; moderate)
72. The interview is the most widely used method for identifying job duties and responsibilities. (T; easy)
73. Job analysis is often a prelude to changing a job’s pay rate. (T; moderate)
74. Interviews used for job analysis typically follow an unstructured format. (F; easy)
75. After completing an interview, the data should be verified with the worker’s immediate supervisor. (T; moderate)
76. Observation as a data collection method in a job analysis is most appropriate for jobs entailing a lot of mental activity. (F; easy)
77. Employers may provide employees pocket dictating machines and pagers to record activities at random times of the work day. (T; moderate)
78. Qualitative approaches are more appropriate than quantitative approaches when one seeks to compare jobs for pay purposes. (F; moderate)
79. There is no standard format for writing a job description. (T; moderate)
80. The statistical analysis method for job specifications is more defensible than the judgmental approach because equal rights legislation forbids using traits that can’t distinguish between high and low job performers. (T; moderate)
81. Job enlargement refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases responsibility and achievement. (F; moderate)
82. Job rotation is another term for dejobbing. (F; easy)
83. Boundaryless organizations use teams and other mechanisms to make boundaries more permeable. (T; moderate)
84. In reengineered situations, workers tend to become collectively responsible for overall results rather than being individually responsible for just their own tasks. (T; difficult)
85. Job analysis experts are concerned that in high performance work environments in which employers need workers to seamlessly move from job to job and exercise self-control, job descriptions based on lists of job-specific duties may actually inhibit the flexible behavior companies need. (T; moderate)
86. Organizations define competencies in the same way. (F; moderate)
87. Functional-based job analysis means describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, behavioral competencies that an employee doing that job must exhibit to do the job well. (F; difficult)
88. Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis. (F; difficult)
89. Competency analysis focuses on how the worker meets the job’s objectives or actually accomplishes the work. (T; moderate)
90. Performance management means basing employee training, appraisals, and rewards on the skills and competencies he or she needs to achieve his or her goals. (T; moderate)
91. A job’s required competencies might include general competencies, leadership competencies, and technical competencies. (T; moderate)
Essay/ Short Answer
92. Explain how job analysis provides information useful in recruitment and selection, compensation, and performance appraisal. (moderate)
Answer: Job analysis provides information for recruitment and selection by laying out what the job entails and what human characteristics are required to perform these activities. This information helps management decide what sort of people to recruit and hire. Job analysis information is also crucial for estimating the value of each job and its appropriate compensation. A performance appraisal compares each employee’s actual performance with his or her performance standards. Managers use job analysis to determine the job’s specific activities and performance standards.
93. List the steps in conducting a job analysis. (moderate)
Answer: There are six steps in doing a job analysis. Step 1 is to decide how one will use the information. Step 2 is to review relevant background information such as organization charts, process charts, and job descriptions. Step 3 is to select representative positions. Step 4 is to analyze the job by collecting data on job activities, required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job. Step 5 is to verify the job analysis information with the worker performing the job and with his or her immediate supervisor. Step 6 is to develop a job description and job specification.
94. Explain how a job analysis typically involves a joint effort by an HR specialist, the worker, and the worker’s supervisor. (moderate)
Answer: The HR specialist might observe and analyze the job and then develop a job description and specification. The supervisor and worker may fill out questionnaires listing the subordinate’s activities. The supervisor and worker may then review and verify the job analyst’s conclusions regarding the job’s activities and duties.
95. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using interviews to collect job analysis data? (moderate)
Answer: Interviews are relatively simple and quick way to collect data. Skilled interviewers can gather information that might otherwise go undiscovered. Some activities might occur only occasionally or be more informal in nature. Interviews can discover these types of activities. The interview also offers an opportunity to explain the need for a job analysis. The biggest drawback is the chance for information to be distorted either to outright falsification or honest misunderstanding.
96. Explain the advantage of using a position analysis questionnaire to analyze a job. (difficult)
Answer: The advantage of the PAQ is that it provides a quantitative score or profile of any job in terms of how that job rates on five basic activities: 1) having decision-making/ communication/ social responsibilities, 2) performing skilled activities, 3) being physically active, 4) operating vehicles/ equipment, and 5) processing information. Its real strength is in classifying jobs. Jobs can then be compared quantitatively.
97. When is a job function essential? (moderate)
Answer: A job function is essential when it is the reason the position exists or when the function is so specialized that the firm hired the person doing the job for his or her expertise or ability to perform that particular function. Essential job functions are the job duties that employees must be able to perform.
98. What job-related behaviors are considered generic and important to all jobs? (moderate)
Answer: Regardless of the job, the following work behaviors are important to all jobs: industriousness, thoroughness, schedule flexibility, attendance, off-task behavior (reverse), unruliness (reverse), theft (reverse), and drug misuse (reverse).
99. What are the five steps for establishing job specifications based on statistical analysis? (difficult)
Answer: Step 1: Analyze the job and decide how to measure job performance. Step 2: Select personal traits like finger dexterity that you believe should predict successful performance. Step 3: Test candidates for these traits. Step 4: Measure these candidates’ subsequent job performance. Step 5: Statistically analyze the relationship between the human trait and job performance.
100. Explain the difference between job enlargement and job enrichment. (easy)
Answer: Job enlargement means assigning workers additional same-level activities to increase the number of activities they perform. Job enrichment means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
